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For Force Account Work, if a Contractor uses his own equipment for the job and only uses the equipment for say 1 hour of the day and does not intend to use it for the rest of the day, would the rest of the day (7 hours) be considered as idle time or standby time? Typically idle time is paid 50% of the operating cost. Standby time is typically the same as Operating cost. My thought is standby is considered equipment that is still intended to be used throughout the day. Your thoughts on this?
 

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If I provide a machine and operator on a project and the machine is only needed for an hour or so I charge for the machine for the entire day. I figure operator separate from the machinery, so if the operator is there for the day, you will get charged for the operator.

Depending on the circumstances, I might charge only a part day for either or both, but the true end result is that the men and equipment need to be paid, typically on a daily rate basis.

I don't know what a "Force Account" is so I don't know if I answered the question or not.

Welcome to the site.
 

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Force Account Work is payment agreed method to pay the Contractor for work that is not originally in the contract. This is not the same as an allowance where the scope of work was defined in the project scope. But thank you for your insight as I agree. If the equipment is required for a portion of the day, the Contractor shall be eligible for payment of the full operational hours of their equipment for maintenance, rental, and depreciation purposes (operator owned vehicle).
 
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