Monopoly Rules

flashheatingand

Yesterday (thanksgiving) our friends were playing a traditional game of Monopoly. Well, I lost due to an inability to get multiple monopolies and bad rolls. But that isn't the reason for the post, shoot, I wasn't in the final two, so there is no reason to be bitter. However, I think my friend has altered the rules in his favor.

While he was short on cash, he sold his houses and mortgaged his property (red properties) to put homes on his other properties (purple ones). Then, after the opponent passed the purple properties, he would sell those houses from the purple spots to put houses and/or hotels on the red properties. He did this for several cycles until he gained enough cash on his own.

There isn't anything that explicitly says anything about this in the rules, but I call Balderdash. I mean, shouldn't he have to pay a premium to roll over the money? What about the existing houses? do they get demo'd? As if they never existed?

Seeing as this is a contractor site, perhaps others can help out in this delema that must be fixed for the future of the game.

kbsparky

Did he sell those houses at half-price? From the Official Monopoly rules:

Seems like this would be a money-losing scheme to have to pay full price to build those houses, and then sell back for ½ price ...

Celtic

I think someone was bamboozled over there Flash ....

In addition to the 1/2 price homes:


It is *possible* that he made a buck or two....If you compare the purple vs. red deeds....assuming someone lands on the improved property.....but that's one helluva bet to make [for the sake of a game].
Did anyone else have improved properties?

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flashheatingand

He paid the extra expense (red houses versus purple houses) I just thought there has to be something about relocating hotels and houses. There should be something in the rules in regards to that. He is a good friend, and Monopoly is a great game for the holidays.

SLSTech

There is no transfer - each time he must sell the houses @ 1/2 Price (or whatever is agreed upon / whatever the rules state) - then he may buy houses for the other properties

So when you pass Baltic he sells 8 houses orig bought @ 50 for 25 each - he then has 200 to buy houses for Indiana or quite simply only 1 as they are 150 each - He sells that - then he only gets 75

Clear?

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flashheatingand

Thank you for taking time to explain. Now, I have ammunition to back up my claim. My next off topic will have to deal with Monopoly strategy. I tried to use "fundamentally sound business principles" as my strategy, but that did not take into account all the lousy rolls

joasis

I didn't look at the rules, but we always played that you must sell off all your houses and hotels on all properties before you can mortgage any....in other words, no mortgaging to get money to buy houses....

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rbsremodeling

I would have just got a LOW DOC/NO DOC mortgage and bought everything on the board

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ChainsawCharlie

Sounds like he was within the rules. Just maybe not ethical for a friendly game. Poor strategy too. He has to hope someone lands on his property.